Translation commentary on John 1:31

Compare John’s statement here that he did not know Jesus with the Lucan infancy narrative, according to which John and Jesus were related (Luke 1.36, 39-45). But the point that the Gospel of John makes may be that John the Baptist did no know that Jesus was “the coming one.”

I did not know who he would be may cause complications in certain languages, for in this particular context the immediate pronominal reference of “he” is somewhat obscure, referring merely to “a man coming after me.” In some cases one may say “I did not know just what person would be that individual who would be greater than I am.”

To make him known is actually a passive construction in Greek (literally “in order that he might be made known”). “To make known” (Greek phaneroō) is a favorite Johannine expression (2.11; 3.21; 7.4; 9.3; 17.6; 21.1 [twice], 14), but it occurs only once in the Synoptic Gospels (Mark 4.22). In each of these instances the reference is either to Jesus’ manifestation of himself, his glory, his works, or his name.

The passive expression to make him known to the people of Israel may be made active in the form “in order to cause people of Israel to know who he is.” In this context “know” must be understood in the sense of “to recognize him for what he is.”

In John’s Gospel Israel always has a good connotation (in contrast to “the Jews”), and is equivalent to “God’s people.”

Quoted with permission from Newman, Barclay M. and Nida, Eugene A. A Handbook on the Gospel of John. (UBS Handbook Series). New York: UBS, 1980. For this and other handbooks for translators see here .

Subscribe
Notify of
guest
0 Comments
Oldest
Newest Most Voted
Inline Feedbacks
View all comments